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Five questions, pulled in the same style as our real CPC exam bank — with the rationale on every one. No card. No catch. No drip-feed before you can see an answer. Just a genuine taste of how SmartMBX prepares you to pass the AAPC exam.

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The free set · 5 questions

Try five. Then check yourself.

These are original, written in-house in the AAPC CPC style — not copied from the real exam. Read the scenario, pick your answer, then hit Reveal answer to see the correct choice and why. This is exactly how every item in the paid bank works.

Question 01 · Evaluation & Management
An established patient is seen in the office. The visit is coded on time. The physician documents 35 minutes of total time spent on the date of the encounter, including reviewing records and counseling the patient. Which CPT code reports this office visit? 2021+ office/outpatient E/M time ranges (established patient): 99212 = 10–19 min · 99213 = 20–29 min · 99214 = 30–39 min · 99215 = 40–54 min.
  • A99212
  • B99213
  • C99214
  • D99215
Correct: C — 99214

For established-patient office visits coded on time, 35 minutes of total time on the date of the encounter falls in the 30–39 minute band, which is 99214. 99213 tops out at 29 minutes and 99215 begins at 40, so neither fits.

Question 02 · Surgery + Modifiers
A surgeon performs a diagnostic knee arthroscopy on the right knee and, in the same session, a separate diagnostic knee arthroscopy on the left knee. The base procedure code is the same for each knee. How should the second (contralateral) procedure most appropriately be reported?
  • AAppend modifier 51 (multiple procedures) to the second knee
  • BAppend modifier 50 (bilateral procedure) — or report the second side with RT/LT per payer rules
  • CAppend modifier 59 (distinct procedural service) to the second knee
  • DAppend modifier 76 (repeat procedure by same physician)
Correct: B — modifier 50 (bilateral)

The same procedure performed on mirror-image (left and right) anatomy is a bilateral service, reported with modifier 50 (some payers instead want RT and LT). Modifier 51 is for different multiple procedures, 59 unbundles distinct services, and 76 is a repeat of the same procedure on the same side — none describe doing one procedure on both sides.

Question 03 · ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is seen for diabetic chronic kidney disease, stage 3. Per ICD-10-CM guidelines, how are these conditions reported?
  • AE11.22 (type 2 diabetes with diabetic chronic kidney disease) + N18.30 (CKD, stage 3 unspecified)
  • BN18.30 alone — the CKD code fully describes the condition
  • CE11.9 (type 2 diabetes without complications) + N18.30
  • DE11.22 alone — it already includes the CKD stage
Correct: A — E11.22 + N18.30

The diabetes–CKD relationship is assumed, so you report the combination code E11.22; an instructional note under that code says to use an additional code to identify the stage of CKD, here N18.30 for stage 3. E11.22 does not specify the stage on its own, and because there is a stated complication, E11.9 ("without complications") is wrong.

Question 04 · Anatomy & Medical Terminology
The operative report states the surgeon performed a partial colectomy with anastomosis. Breaking down the terminology, what does the procedure involve?
  • AIncision into the colon to obtain a biopsy, then closure
  • BCreation of a new opening from the colon to the skin surface
  • CVisual examination of the entire colon with a scope
  • DSurgical removal of part of the colon, then reconnection of the remaining ends
Correct: D — remove part of the colon, then reconnect

"-ectomy" means surgical removal, so colectomy is excision of the colon (here "partial" = part of it). "Anastomosis" is a surgical connection between two structures — the remaining colon ends are rejoined. Incision/biopsy would be "-otomy," a new skin opening is a colostomy ("-ostomy"), and scope examination is colonoscopy ("-oscopy").

Question 05 · HCPCS & Compliance
A provider documents that a service was medically reasonable, but the patient's insurer does not consider it covered. Before furnishing the service, the practice has the Medicare patient sign a notice acknowledging they may be financially responsible. Which HCPCS Level II modifier signals that this Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) is on file?
  • AModifier GZ — item or service expected to be denied, no ABN on file
  • BModifier GA — waiver of liability (ABN) on file, as required by payer policy
  • CModifier GX — notice of liability issued for a statutorily excluded service
  • DModifier GY — item or service statutorily excluded, not a Medicare benefit
Correct: B — modifier GA

GA reports that a required ABN (waiver of liability) is on file for a service likely to be denied as not reasonable/necessary. GZ is the same expected-denial situation but with no ABN obtained; GX is for a voluntary ABN on a statutorily excluded service; and GY flags a service that is statutorily excluded from Medicare entirely. Only GA matches "ABN signed and on file."

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